Doesn’t have to be long this is just for a discussion post.

Doesn’t have to be long, this is just for a discussion post. In a test of a weight loss program, weights of 40 subjects are recorded before and after the program. Assume that the before/after weights result in r = 0.876.Is there sufficient evidence to support a claim of a linear correlation between before/after weights?Does the value of r indicate that the program is effective in reducing weight? Why or why not?

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